GREGORY - How could Joseph Smith have seen God the Father (Col. 1:15, 1 Tim. 6:16, John 1:18)?

JOEL -
"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:" (Col. 1:15)

Read the next scripture:

"For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: (verse 16)

What are those invisible things God created? He created the heaven(stars, planets, etc.) above our earth, the earth itself, as well as plenty of things that are "invisible" to mortals; like the atmosphere, heat, different wavelengths of light, microorganisms, etc. Invisible does not mean it can not been seen at all, but it is difficult for man to see with his mortal eyes; like God for example. God does not normally allow Himself to be seen by man. He is invisable to us, but not to His prophets when He decides to show Himself to them. If God is all-powerful does He not have the power to show Himself to man if He wants to? Both Jacob and Moses saw God "face to face". (Gen. 32: 30, Ex. 33: 11).
Stephen saw Jesus standing on the right hand of God (Acts 7: 56). There had to be something that Stephen identified as God to be able to say that Jesus was standing next to Him. Sounds to me like God and Jesus are both visible.

The problem in the Bible is that there are places where people see God. (Gen 12:7, 17:1, 18:1, 26:2, 32:30, EX 3:16, 24:9-11, 33:11, Num. 12:7-8, 14:14, Job 42:5, Amos 9:1 Acts 7: 56)
And there are other places that say no one can see God. (EX 33:20, John 1:18, 1 John 4:12 1 Tim. 6:16)
Which scriptures are correct? When Joseph Smith retranslated the Bible He was able to correct many of these seeming contradictions through revelation from God.

GREGORY - Doesnt Zechariah 12:1 go against the pre-existence (it claims that the spirit of man is created within a man).

JOEL -
"THE burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him." (Zechariah 12:1)

That's not the way I read it. To me it says that God is the one who creates the spirit that is within man.

GREGORY - How come LDS bishops are not under any obligation to have one wife and in the 1800s had many wives, while the Bible (1 Tim. 3:2) orders that a bishop have _one_ wife only?

JOEL -
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;" (1 Tim. 3:2)

Hey! Seven out of eight isn't bad :-)
All Mormon Bishops either are married or have been married in the temple to someone. Our marriages are eternal. Just because a Bishop's wife has died does not mean he is not still married to her. The principle of plural marriage is an eternal one but God can command us to live it or not live it.
There were prophets in Old Testament times who were told to have more than one wife. If God said it was O.K. then, why would it not be possible to be O.K. now?
At the time Paul was talking to the New Testament Christians it was not proper for a Bishop to have more than one wife. God can revoke or re-institute a practice or commandment as He sees fit. Such is the case with polygamy.

D&C 56:4 "Wherefore I, the Lord, command and revoke, as it seemeth me good; and all this to be answered upon the heads of the rebellious, saith the Lord."

Plural marriage is righteous and acceptable conduct if God commands it through his prophet, but it is an abomination when the Lord has not commanded it.

Jesus Himself (through Mary) is a result of polygamy as is the entire House of Israel, God's covenant people. God established his covenant with polygamist Abraham and said that all nations of the earth would be blessed through him and his seed. Even Gentiles who accept the gospel and are baptized become the seed of Abraham by adoption. (Gal. 3:20). So all Christians claim lineage from a polygamist family.

GREGORY - LDS teach that once we die, the good and bad will all be part of the spirit prison. How can this be compatible with Luke 16: 19-26?

JOEL - This was just a parable Christ told, the point being to show how wealth has no bearing on where we end up in the next life.
We teach that those faithful members of God's kingdom go to Paradise from which they are sent to Spirit Prison to preach to those, both good and bad, who never got the chance to hear it in this life. Perhaps in the story, Lazaras had accepted the Gospel while on the earth before he died, thereby qualifying him for Paradise.

GREGORY - Can a 12-year old boy fulfil New Testament qualifications for a deacon (1 Tim. 3:12)? The qualifications for offices, etc are not optional. In the LDS Church, Elders can be 19-year olds. However, the NT states that Elders must be married and seem to be the father of children (Titus 1:5-7). Does a young, single man meet the NT qualifications for an elder?

JOEL -
"Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well." (1 Tim. 3:12)
"For this cause left I thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in order the things that are wanting, and ordain elders in every city, as I had appointed thee:
If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly."(Titus 1:5-7)

Can you quote me a verse that says the qualifications are "not optional". God can change the qualifications if He wants, to better serve the fast growth of the church in these latter days.

GREGORY - How can one explain JOD volume 13, pages 140-141 pertaining to miracles and John 2:23;10:25,37-38 and Hebrews 2:4?

JOEL -
"Now when he was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did.
Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father’s name, they bear witness of me.
If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him."
"God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?"
(John 2:23;10:25,37-38 and Hebrews 2:4)

In the JOD Brigham Young is expressing his personal opinion about the necessity of miracles. He is saying that he personally doesn't need to see a miracle to confirm the truth of any doctrine. He has enough faith in God to believe the doctrine and live it without the miracle. But he goes on to say that for many others miracles are still needed.

GREGORY - How come LDS believe that the devil spoke some truth in Eden while John 8:44 states that there is no truth in him?

JOEL -
"Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it. (John 8:44)

There is a diffrence in speaking a truth and being true. The scripture says "WHEN he speaketh a lie", implying that Satan doesn't always lie. He may speak many truths in order to bring to pass one big lie.
Satan lied when he told Eve that she wouldn't die. (Gen. 3:4)
The truth he spoke in Eden was when he said "For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil." (Gen. 3:5)
This was verified as a truthful statement when after Adam took the fruit God said "Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil:" (Ge. 3:22)
Satan made a truthful statement to get Adam to do something against God's command.

GREGORY - How come the J.S.History claims that Joel 2:28-end was not yet fulfilled while the NT claims that it was indeed fulfilled (Acts 2:14-16)?

JOEL -
"And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: (Joel 2:28) "But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:" (Acts 2:14-16)

Peter was explaining that what they saw and heard was an example of what the Prophet Joel said would happen in the last days. This did not mean that this prophecy was completely fulfilled. We are still in the last days and are continuing to see examples of this prophecy occuring(eg. Joseph Smith) but it will not be completely fulfilled until the second coming and Christ is here.

GREGORY - Dont Numbers 17:2,5,8; 18:7 and Hebrews 7:13-14 contradict 2 Nephi 5:26, Jarom 1:5 and Jarom 1:11? How could the Nephites have observed the law of Moses yet appoint priests contrary to Law of Moses (by appointing a tribe other than Levi?)

JOEL -
"Speak unto the children of Israel, and take of every one of them a rod according to the house of their fathers, of all their princes according to the house of their fathers twelve rods: write thou every man’s name upon his rod.
And it shall come to pass, that the man’s rod, whom I shall choose, shall blossom: and I will make to cease from me the murmurings of the children of Israel, whereby they murmur against you.
And it came to pass, that on the morrow Moses went into the tabernacle of witness; and, behold, the rod of Aaron for the house of Levi was budded, and brought forth buds, and bloomed blossoms, and yielded almonds." (Num17:2,5,8)

"But the firstling of a cow, or the firstling of a sheep, or the firstling of a goat, thou shalt not redeem; they are holy: thou shalt sprinkle their blood upon the altar, and shalt burn their fat for an offering made by fire, for a sweet savour unto the LORD." (Num 18:7)

"For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood." (Hebrews 7:13-14)

"And it came to pass that I, Nephi, did consecrate Jacob and Joseph, that they should be priests and teachers over the land of my people. (2 Nephi 5:26)

"And now, behold, two hundred years had passed away, and the people of Nephi had waxed strong in the land. They observed to keep the law of Moses and the sabbath day holy unto the Lord. And they profaned not; neither did they blaspheme. And the laws of the land were exceedingly strict." (Jarom 1:5)

Wherefore, the prophets, and the priests, and the teachers, did labor diligently, exhorting with all long-suffering the people to diligence; teaching the law of Moses, and the intent for which it was given; persuading them to look forward unto the Messiah, and believe in him to come as though he already was. And after this manner did they teach them." (Jarom 1:11)

Since the tribe of Levi was not represented in Lehi’s colony, their temple duties as teachers and priests were performed under the authority of "the holy order of God", also known as the Melchizedek Priesthood, which Lehi did posess as did other Old Testament prophets.
"The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek." (Ps. 110: 4)

GREGORY - If God was a man who became God, how about John 1:14? It seems this goes against it.

JOEL -
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."(John 1:4)

This is talking specifically about Jesus Christ, not about any other man who may be exalted and achieve Godhood.

GREGORY - Why would Jesus have needed to work out His salvation in this mortal probation to become like the Father (e.g. see "Our relationship with the Lord," page 8-9) since he was already equal with God before appearing in human form (John 1:1-2, 14 and Phil. 2:6-7)?

JOEL -
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The same was in the beginning with God.
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." (John 1:1-2, 14)

"Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: (Phil. 2:6-7)

Was Jesus really equal with God the Father? In John 14:28 Jesus said:

"for my Father is greater than I. (John 14:28.)
"I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." (John 20:17.)

These scriptures seem to contradict the one in Phillipians, but in a way they are all true. The Father will forever be above Jesus in that Jesus obtained the fulness of God’s glory from and through the Father and as Jesus’ Father and Patriarch, our Heavenly Father is and will be forever the administrator in the affairs of his kingdom. At the same time, however, because of the very fact that Jesus did receive all power and a fulness of the Father’s glory, he may quite properly be thought of as "equal with God."
However, while Jesus was on the earth He was not quite equal with God in glory. In coming down to earth to live a mortal life Jesus gave up some of the glory He had as a God with His Father. This is why He said the following when He prayed to the Father:

"And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I HAD with thee before the world was." (John 17:5)

The Bible also teaches that "...Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man." (Luke 2:52)
From these scriptures it would appear that Jesus was no longer at an equal with God the Father while on earth. To "increase in favor with God" means that while living as a mortal He had to progress as a mortal until He died and was resurrected and once again received His full glory as a God. This is why in "Our relationship with the Lord," Bruce R. McConkie said Jesus had to work out His own salvation while on earth.

GREGORY - How can one reconcile Galatians 5:4, where one is cut off from Christ if one attempts to be made right with God through the law, with 2 Nephi 25:25?
In light of Hebrews 8:13 and 10:9 and Galatians 3:23-25 also, could the Law of Moses have become dead to the Nephites before the law had been taken away fulfilled)?
How was the law dead to the Nephites if they kept it? Since the purpose of taking away the first agreement [Law of Moses] was to establish the second [Law of Christ - Galatians 6:2], how could the 2 agreements co-exist?
How come Galatians 3:23-25 states that the way of faith (Christ) came after the law, contrary to the Book of Mormon? Could the Nephites be made right with God though faith in Christ before that way came?

JOEL -
"Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace. (Galatians 5:4)

"For, for this end was the law given; wherefore the law hath become dead unto us, and we are made alive in Christ because of our faith; yet we keep the law because of the commandments." (2 Nephi 25:25)

Galations 5:4 was said after Christ came, fulfilling the laws of Moses. The people were therefore no longer justified following the old law. The 2 Nephi scripture was said 500 years before Christ came while they were still living the law of Moses. The law of Moses became "dead" in them because they had found out about Christ through the prophets and wanted to live the law of Christ now, but were still under obligation to live the law of Moses until Christ came.

"And, inasmuch as it shall be expedient, ye must keep the performances and ordinances of God until the law shall be fulfilled which was given unto Moses." (2 Nephi 25:30, See also Jarom 1:5)

The two agreements did not really co-exist. Officially they remained strictly under the Law of Moses.

Galations 3:23-25:
"But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster."

Here Paul is describing the way things were for the people living in his part of the world before Christ came. They were not able to have much faith in Christ because they didn't know much if anything about Him before He came. The Nephites on the other side of the world, however, had received much more information about Christ; enough to instill a sense of faith in Him and His new law they would someday have. Would God ever condemn a people for having faith in Christ?

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